Koran Forbids Elections?
December 12, 2005, 11:44 pm |
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Here’s what Iraq’s arch-terrorist, Abu Musab al-Zarqawi, says about this week’s elections:
“This so-called political process — and those who take part in these apostate elections — is forbidden by God’s laws and goes against our Muslim constitution, the Koran,” the groups said in the statement [released on the web].
Really? Just where does the Koran forbid elections? Following Zarqawi’s logic, does he mean to kill all the Muslims in Afghanistan, Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, Lebanon, Indonesia, Djibouti, the Palestinian territories, etc., who have voted in varying degrees of free (and not so free) elections?
Where does this Islamist madness end?
Related: Iraq
December 13th, 2005 at 3:55 am
I think the prohibition of voting is not overt. Sharia is Islamic law, which all true Muslims will seek to create. The word of Allah as spoken by Muhammud isn’t open to modification via voting. It’s written in stone for all intents and purposes.
December 13th, 2005 at 11:53 am
As I read the Koran, I agree it is not overt. But if you read the Torah, Bible, Tao Te Ching, or Bhagavad-Gita, you also find no overt prohibitions on elections. Actually, you can’t find the words (or related words) even mentioned.
My point is, the lack of mention is more due to the time period these texts were written — a time of kings, and little democracy, except for the Greeks, Romans, and to some extent, the Etruscans.
So, what I’m really saying is that the Islamists are full of crap, and it is their “interpretation” of a Koraninc ban on elections that they are peddling now.